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Foreign currency valuation

Hello all,
here is a question for the friends of foreign currency valuation. I am concerned with the bank accounts, where the balance of the bank accounts is valued in each case.
Now we have here the following phenomenon, which appears at the end of the year like this.
Bank account in USD: approx. 7,000  valued in EUR at approx. 139,000
Bank account in GBP: ca. 4.000  valued in EUR at ca. -250.000
Bank account in USD: approx. 200  valued in EUR at approx. 38,000
Currency differences in EUR: approx. 84,000
Balance in EUR: approx. 11.000
Now it is already clear to me that GBP 4,000 converted into EUR cannot give -250,000.
In my opinion, this "mathematical" phenomenon results from the fact that we have only one account for currency differences, and the balance in EUR is always updated.
Now, this looks a bit strange in a balance sheet in EUR, since here only exchange rate differences from valuation are output.
Our department is of the opinion that there should be a transaction for the annual financial statement, which now posts realized exchange rate differences.
What is the opinion in the forum?
I am not aware of such a desired transaction here.
To get more transparency here:
- Would it make sense to set up a currency difference account per bank account?
- Or does one currency difference account per foreign currency make sense?
I am looking forward to short term feedback. Thanks!
Greetings John

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2 Answers

  • klausdieterjager
    klausdieterjager
    Hello John,
    Let me ask you a question:
    With these considerable valuation differences, I wonder with which values in EUR the balances are shown without valuation.
    The first USD account would have to show a credit balance, the second one as well and the GBP account would have to show a debit balance beyond good and bad.
    If the assumption is correct, then I would also assume that these accounts have been running for a long time and have more or less always been valued with a difference account.
    I see two possible solutions;
    First, there is the possibility to bring the EURO balances of the bank accounts with the F-05 times to a reasonable level. The foreign currency remains, the EURO balance comes into a reasonable size.
    You can do this every now and then, if the balances look strange.
    For documentation purposes I would suggest in that case to store the used exchange rate in the annex of the document - also the calculation based on the current balance.
    If the valuation can't be changed over as suggested below, then you can do it over and over again.
    On the other hand, the question of how many valuations run over the accounts.
    If only one balancing needs to be converted, I would suggest to have the valuation posted directly to the bank accounts (is something like a F-05, just machine) and not reverse that valuation for the balances.
    Works even if there are multiple assessments - but then you would have to make sure that the assessment that posts directly to the account is executed and posted first, to avoid duplicate assessment of the original balances.
    And I mean already post first and then start the following runs - not start valuation run 1 and shoot the second one right after. I've experienced that too - with correspondingly wrong results.
    In any case, you have once quite a jump in euros, but after that it runs with the regular valuation again in a reasonable framework - with proposal two even permanently.
    Greetings
    Klaus
  • JohnLt
    JohnLt (Author)
    Hello Klaus,
    Your assumption is correct:
    The accounts have been running for a long time and have always been valued with a difference account.
    We have solved this as follows - as also suggested by you:
    We have defined the original G/L account as the balance sheet adjustment account.
    Thank you very much for your effort!
    Greetings John